M. RAMA JOIS, J. ( 1 ) IN this writ petition, presented by a student, who has failed in the Pre-University examination conducted by the Board of pre-University Education of this State, the following two questions arise for consideration - (I) Whether a candidate has a right to the relief in the form of a direction to the board of Pre-University Education to revalue his/her answer scripts? (II) Whether the petitioner is entitled to a direction to the respondent to award more marks than awarded by the valuer? ( 2 ) THE facts of the case, in brief, are as follows: The petitioner, who is a minor and who has presented this writ petition through her father and next friend, was a student of II Year P. U. C. during the academic year 1983-84. She appeared for the II Year P. U. C. examination conducted in April 1984. She secured in all 320 marks out of 600 which works out to 53. 6 per cent. In the optional groups consisting of physics, Chemistry, Mathmatics and Biology, she secured 188 marks out of 400 which works out to 47 per cent. However, she failed in the examination for the reason, she secured only 26 marks in Biology theory consisting of Botany and zoology, the maximum marks for each of these papers was 45. The petitioner thereafter sought for re-totalling the marks for which a provision has been made in the regulars of the Board of Pre-University ('the Board' for short ). Thereafter she presented this writ petition. ( 3 ) WHEN the matter came up before the court on 13. 7. 1984, the answer scripts of the petitioner were produced. On an examination of the answer scripts, it was found that the petitioner had secured 16 marks in Botany and 3 marks in Zoology and there was no mistake in the totalling of the marks. When the answer scripts so produced before the Court, were also made available to the learned counsel for the petitioner and the petitioner, an additional statement was filed stating that the valuation made by the concerned valuers were patently wrong. ( 4 ) THE averments made in the additional statement were as follows: Though the petitioner gave correct answers to Question nos. ( 4 ) THE averments made in the additional statement were as follows: Though the petitioner gave correct answers to Question nos. I (B) (I), II (4), III (2), IV (2) and II (3) in the answer script concerning Zoology, zero marks had been given by the valuer to her answers to the first four of these questions, one mark in respect of the other two questions. In respect of questions II (4) and IV (4) of Botany paper, though the petitioner had given correct answers, zero mark was given to each of the answers and in respect of question II (1) only four marks were given, though more should have been given. ( 5 ) THE Board, as also the concerned valuers have filed their counter statements. The Board in its affidavit has stated that the answer scripts of the petitioner had been valued in accordance with the regulations of the Board. The concerned valuers have also stated that on perusal of the answers scripts, once again they found that the valuation made by them was correct. The plea of the respondents is that the rules do not permit revaluation and the petitioner is not entitled to the relief sought for. ( 6 ) IT is in the light of these pleas the two questions set out first arise for consideration. ( 7 ) LEARNED counsel for the Board contended that no writ of mandamus directing the Board to revalue the answer scripts of the petitioner can be issued by this Court as the existence of such a right in the petitioner and a corresponding duty on the part of the Board was a condition precedent for the issue of a writ of mandamus. In support of the submission that there is no such right in the petitioner, counsel for the Board relied on rules 37 and 38 of the rules relating to the conduct of Pre-University examination framed by the state Government in exercise of its executive power under Article 162 of the Constitution Rule 37 on which the learned counsel relied, reads -"37. Re-valuation of answer scripts:- under circumstances, re-valuation of answer scripts will be permitted by the Board. Hence no applications made by the candidate or by any other person in this behalf shall be entertained". Rule 37 provides that revaluation of answer scripts is not permitted under any circumstances. Re-valuation of answer scripts:- under circumstances, re-valuation of answer scripts will be permitted by the Board. Hence no applications made by the candidate or by any other person in this behalf shall be entertained". Rule 37 provides that revaluation of answer scripts is not permitted under any circumstances. Rule 38 enables the candidate concerned to apply for re-totalling. ( 8 ) LEARNED counsel submitted that as far as re-totalling is concerned, that the petitioner has approached this Court even before the Board disposed of her application for retotalling. He however pointed out that as the answer scripts produced before the Court, demonstrated that there has been no error in totalling the marks, the prayer for a direction for retotalling had become unnecessary. As far as revaluation is concerned learned counsel submitted that in view of rule 37, there was no right for revaluation. ( 9 ) IN support of the above submission, learned counsel for the Board relied on the judgment of the Supreme Court in maharashtra STATE BOARD OF secondary AND HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION v. PARITOSH bhupesh KURMARSHETH (1) AIR 1984 sc 1543 . In this decision, the Supreme court has ruled that a candidate, who has appeared for secondary Education examination of Maharashtra, had no right to have inspection or revaluation of his answers scripts, as the same was prohibited by the rules. The Court also held that such a rule was reasonable and not arbitrary. The relevant portions of the judgment readregulation 104 with which we are concerned occurs in Part III and cls. (1) to (3) thereof which alone are relevant for the purpose of this case require to be reproduced here: 104 VERIFICATION OF MARKS obtained BY A CANDIDATE IN A subject. (1) Any candidate who has appeared at the Higher Secondary Certificate Examination may apply to the Divisional Secretary for verification of marks in any particular subject. The verification will be restricted to checking whether all the answers have been examined and that there has been no mistake in the totalling of marks for each question in that subject and transferring marks correctly on the first cover page of the answer-book and whether the supplements attached to the answer book mentioned by the candidate are intact. No revaluation of the answer book or supplements shall be done. No revaluation of the answer book or supplements shall be done. (2) Such an application must be made by the candidate through the head of the junior college which presented him for the examination, within two weeks of the declaration of the examination results and must be accompanied by a fee of Rs. 10/- for each subject. (3) No Candidate shall claim, or be entitled for revaluation of his answers or disclosure or inspection of the answer-books or other documents as these are treated by the divisional Board as most confidential. 27. The High Court has relied upon the fact that the University of Bombay and some other Universities have recently made provisions permitting candidates to demand revaluation. In our opinion, this has little relevance for the purpose of deciding about the legal validity of the impugned regulations framed by the Board. We do not know under what circumstances, the University of Bombay has decided to recognise a right in the examines to demand a revaluation. As far as the Board is concerned, it has set out in the counter- affidavit the enormity of the task with which it is already faced namely, of completing twice during each year the process of revaluation and release of results of some 3 lakhs of candidates appearing for the s. S. C. and H. S. C. examination to be held in an interval of only a few months from the another. If the candidates are all to be given inspection of their answer books or the revaluation of the answer papers is to be done in the presence of the candidates, the process is bound to be extremely time consuming and if such a request is made by even about ten percent of the candidates who will be 30,000 in number, it would involve several thousands of man hours and is bound to throw the entire system out of gear. Further it is in the public interest that the results of public examination when published should have some finality attached to them. If inspection, verification in the presence of candidates and revaluation are to be allowed as of right, it may lead to gross and indefinite uncertainty, particularly in regard to the relative ranking etc. of the candidates, besides leading to utter confusion on account of the enormity of the labour and time involved in the process. 29. If inspection, verification in the presence of candidates and revaluation are to be allowed as of right, it may lead to gross and indefinite uncertainty, particularly in regard to the relative ranking etc. of the candidates, besides leading to utter confusion on account of the enormity of the labour and time involved in the process. 29. Far from advancing public interest and fair play to the other candidates in general, any such interpretation of the legal position would be wholly defeasive of the same. As has been repeatedly pointed out by this Court, the Court should be extremely reluctant to substitute its own views as to what is wise, prudent and proper in relation to academic matters in preference to those formulated by professional men possessing technical expertise and rich experience of actual day-to-day working of educational institutions and the departments controlling them. It will be wholly wrong for the court to make a pedantic and purely idealistic approach to the problems of this nature, isolated from the actual realities and grass root problems involved in the working of the system and unmindful of the consequences which would emanate if a purely idealistic view as opposed to a pragmatic one were to be propounded. It is equally important that the Court should also, as far as possible, avoid any decision, or interpretation of a statutory provision, rule or bye-law which would bring about the result of rendering the system unworkable in practice. It is unfortunate that this principle has not been adequately kept in mind by the High Court while deciding the instant case". ( 10 ) LEARNED counsel for the petitioner, however, submitted that the above judgment was rendered while interpreting the regulations framed under the Maharashtra secondary and High Secondary Education board Act, 1965 and, therefore, the said decision has no relevance to the facts and circumstances of the case. He also further submitted that rule 104 (3) of the rules which came up for consideration in the said case not only provided that no candidate was entitled for revaluation of his answer scripts, but also stated that the reason for the rule was that those documents were treated as most confidential and that the present rules did not say so and therefore the said decision had no application to the facts of the case. ( 11 ) I do not find any substance in the contention urged for the petitioner. Rule 37 of the rules framed by the Government is similar to rule 104 (3) of the Maharashtra rules. The object, purpose and intention of both the rules are the same, namely, to provide that no candidate was entitled to revaluation of his answer scripts. The Supreme Court on an interpretation of the above rule has held that no candidate who had appeared for the Maharashtra Board examination had the right to inspection of the answer scripts or the right for revaluation. The Supreme Court has further held that such a rule was not unreasonable or arbitrary. The distinction sought to be made on the ground that the said rule was made under an Act of Legislature and the rule under consideration was not made under an Act of this State Legislature is devoid of any substance. It is well settled that when there is no law made by the legislature, the executive power of the state available to it under Article 162 of the Constitution being coextensive with that of Legislature, the executive has got the power to frame rules. (See: RAM jawaya vs. STATE BANK OF PUNJAB ). (2) AIR (1955) 2. S. C. R. 225 ( 12 ) LEARNED counsel submitted that the rules in question were those framed by the board and not framed by the State Government in exercise of its executive power and, therefore, has no efficacy. The Government Order dated 13-10-1971 which is printed on the opening page of the booklet of the rules relating to the conduct of pre-University examination reads"order NO. ED 119 UDC 71, BANGALORE, DATED THE 13th OCTOBER 1971. With reference to letter No. EXM 36 mis 71, dated 14th September 1971, from the Director of Pre-University Education, j. C. Road, Bangalore on the above subject , the Government approved the Rules relating to the conduct of Pre-University examination in the enclosure. By Order and in the name of the president of India, sd/- S. V. Kashipathy, under Secretary to Government, education and Youth Services Department. "the above Government Order is a complete answer to the objection of the petitioner. By Order and in the name of the president of India, sd/- S. V. Kashipathy, under Secretary to Government, education and Youth Services Department. "the above Government Order is a complete answer to the objection of the petitioner. Whether the rules have been framed by the State Government and sent to the Board or rules have been drafted by the board and were approved by the Government Order, it makes, no difference. In either of the cases the rules would be those framed by the Government in exercise of its executive power. I hold that no writ of mandamus can be issued to the board to revalue the answer scripts of the petitioner as he has no right for revaluation and answer the first question in the negative. ( 13 ) AS far as the second question, learned counsel for the petitioner relied on the judgment of the Supreme Court reported in KANPUR UNIVERSITY vs. SUMIR GUPTA. (3) AIR 1983 S. C. 123. That case out of the results of an objective test called 'combined pre-medical test' conducted by the Lucknow University for adjudging the merit of the candidates for the purpose of making selection for admission to the medical course. On a question of fact, it was found that the key answer furnished by the concerned paper setter was wrong, whereas the answer furnished by some of the students who were the petitioners before the High Court was correct and that no marks were given to the students to their correct answers on the ground that such answers were contrary to the key answers furnished by the paper setters. The High Court held that when it was proved beyond doubt that the key answer furnished by the paper setter was wrong and that the answer furnished by the students was correct, the University was bound to give marks to the correct answers this view was upheld by the Supreme court holding that when the key answers furnished by the paper setter were found to be palpably wrong, the University could not refuse to rectify the said mistake, and award marks to the students concerned who had furnished correct answers. Relying on the aforesaid judgment, learned counsel for the petitioner submitted that in the present case also though the answers furnished by the petitioner were correct as the valuer had given zero marks this court should direct the Board to give marks to those questions and retotal the marks secured by the petitioner on the said basis. ( 14 ) IN my opinion, the ratio of the above decision is not apposite to the type of examination conducted by the Board, which is similar to the one conducted by the Maharashtra Secondary Education examination Board which was the subject matter in the case of PARITOSH. (1) AIR 1984 SC 1543 . Once it is held that there is no right for inspection or revaluation of answer scripts in such an examination, it follows that the question of the court adjudicating as to the correctness of the answers furnished by the students or as to the correctness or sufficiency of marks awarded does not arise. ( 15 ) HOWEVER, as on the earlier date "of hearing, I had allowed the inspection and additional statements and counter statements have been filed. I shall proceed to find out as to whether there is any substance in the grievance of the petitioner. ( 16 ) IN support of his submission, learned counsel relied on a text book of Biology volume II for II year P. U. C. of Karnataka state by Prof. P. Venkataraman and others. I shall now set out the questions, the answers furnished in the book and the answers furnished by the petitioner and the assessment of valuers. Q. I (B) (1 ). Mention the concept of natural selection? ans. in the text book at page 166 natural selection may be said as slow automatic and self going process in which fittest will survive and the unfit will perish and finally eliminated. In other words those with favourable variations will survive and others are eliminated. It is the nature which determines as to which group of organisms are fit and should survive, and which group is unfit and so to be eliminated. This is known as Natural Selection since it is the nature which selects best of them. Ans. by the petitioner theory of natural selection: nature selects a person who is fit to survive because one who is strong will survive and one is weak dies. This is known as Natural Selection since it is the nature which selects best of them. Ans. by the petitioner theory of natural selection: nature selects a person who is fit to survive because one who is strong will survive and one is weak dies. The valuer has treated the answer as wrong and has given zero marks. Q. 11 (4) Draw a neat labelled diagram of hen's egg. Ans. in the text book at page 271 diagram of hen's egg 'in section is given and following parts are labelled 1. Nucleus of Pander 9. Outer shell membrana 2. Blastodisc 10. Dense Albumen 3. Neck of Latebra 11. Watery Albumen 4. Chalaziferous Albumen 12. Latebra 5. Viteltine Membrane 13. White Yolk 6. Yellow Yok 14. Air Space 7. Chalaze 15. Inner Shell membrana 8. Shell ans. by the petitioner an egg shaped diagram is written and no part is labelled. The valuer has given zero marks. Q. 11 (2) Explain any two types of placenta with examples. Ans. in the text book at page 288 placenta in various groups of animals may be classified into three types (a) Yolk sac placenta (b) Primitive allantoic placenta (c) Allantoic placenta (A) Yolk sac placenta: in some of the pouched mammals belonging to the sub-class marsupialia under the class mammalia, foetal tissues are yolk sac and chorion. As there is yolk sac the placenta is described as Yolk sac placenta. This type of placenta is seen in American opossum (Didelphis) Foetus has a large highly vascularised yolk sac, this yolk sac along with chorion develops foldings and by these folding the foetus is attached to the uterine wall of the mother. Yolk sac placenta may be said as the most rudimentary type of placenta. The uterine glands will secrete a viscous antritious fluid namely the uterine milk which is absorbed by the foetus. (B) Primitive Allantoic Placenta: this type of placenta is seen in a pouched mammal Parameles. The foetus develops a large immensely vascularised yolk sac. There is allantois which comes in contact with that of chorion. This part again is in contact with the uterus of the mother (endo metrium ). In Parameles the opposition of allantois and maternal tissues will form placenta and it helps in respiration, nutrition and excretion of foetus. The foetus develops a large immensely vascularised yolk sac. There is allantois which comes in contact with that of chorion. This part again is in contact with the uterus of the mother (endo metrium ). In Parameles the opposition of allantois and maternal tissues will form placenta and it helps in respiration, nutrition and excretion of foetus. As in yolk sac placenta the foetus absorbs uterine milk but the foetus (blastocyst) is not firmly attached to the uterine wall of the mother. (C) Allantoic placenta: This type of placenta also known as True placenta is found in all eutherian mammals. In allantoic placenta the allantoic blood vessels will take an important part in its formation. Allantoic placenta on morphological basis is classified into two types: They are: i. Indeciduate placenta. II. Deciduate placenta. I. Indeciduate placenta: It is a primitive type of allantoic placenta found in mammals provided with hoofs called ungulates. The allantois is found attached to chorion, chorion forms villi which will be fit into crypts of uterine wall without intimate connection. At the time of parturition (i. e. , during birth of the child) the villi are simply pulled from the crypts of the uterus without any damages to maternal tissues. This process of pulling can be compared to the fingers being pulled out of gloves. Indeciduate placenta may be divided further into three types. " ans. given by the petitioner two placenta's are (1) Primitive placenta and (2 ). . . . placenta (illegible) the valuer has regarded this answer as wrong and has given zero marks. Q. IV (2) Describe the Digestive process in stomach and small intestine of man? ans. in the text book at pp 230-231. Digestion in Stomach: food reaches the stomach by the act of swallowing. Food mixes-with gastric juice secreted by gastric glands. Gastric juice contains water, HCI and enzymes like pepsin, rennin and gastric lipase. Pepsin is produced as inactive pepsinogen but activated to pepsin by HCI. Similarly prorennin is activated to rennin by HCI. Digestion of proteins, begins in the stomach. Pepsin acts on only certain proteins (enzyme specificity) and converts them into peptides. Proteins + Pepsin H2o Ph 1. 5. to 2. 2. Proteoses - Peptones. case in (milk protein) is acted upon by rennin. Normally rennin is very effective in young mammals (infants) since rennin requires Ph 4 to 5. Digestion of proteins, begins in the stomach. Pepsin acts on only certain proteins (enzyme specificity) and converts them into peptides. Proteins + Pepsin H2o Ph 1. 5. to 2. 2. Proteoses - Peptones. case in (milk protein) is acted upon by rennin. Normally rennin is very effective in young mammals (infants) since rennin requires Ph 4 to 5. Rennin brings about curdling of milk proteins and thereby facilities the action of pepsin. Casein + Rennin PH 4 to 5 H2o Paracasein (soluble) paracasein + Calcium- - - Calcium para caseinate (Insoluble curdles ). Calcium para caseinate + pepsin-proeoses peptones. In adults the action of rennin is normally taken by chymotrypsin, since rennin is ineffective. Some of the disaccharides are converted to monosaccharides by HCI IN the stomach. Facts which are already in the state of emulsion (e. g. Cream, Yolk) are acted upon by Gastric lipase releasing fatty acides and glycerol. Cream Gastric lipase - fatty acid + Glycerol. The food is converted into semi-solid state due to the action of gastric muscularity. This semi solid food is called chyme. When chyme is formed, pyloric sphincter relaxes and the food passes into intestine. Digestion in Intestine: In the intestine food mixes with bile juice pancreatic juice and intestinal juice. The acidity of the food is first neutralised and then made alkaline by Na HCO3 of bile and pancereatic juices, thus facilitating the action of intestinal enzymes. The action of pepsin ceases in this situation. Bile juice is secreted by liver. Bile juice does not contain any digestive enzymes. It is alkaline, olive green or golden yellowish and bitter juice. Bile juice contains bilesalts, bile acids and bile pigments. Ans. given by the petitioner - digestic process in stomach :- stomach produces many Enzyme which convers one type of sugar into another maltose maltose glucose lactose Lactose Glucose + Galaetose sucrose Sucrose Glucose + Frustose digestive process in small intestine:- it produces many enzymes like Tripsin, renin, Lysin etc. , prorenin is converted into renin. The valuer has given one mark as against 8 marks for the question. Q. IV (3) Explain the process of conduction of a nerve impulse through a diagrom. Ans. in the text book at page 243-245: response to stimulus in an organism is. an organized pattern of many physiological events. This is achieved by the Coordinated function of (a) reoeptor, effector. Q. IV (3) Explain the process of conduction of a nerve impulse through a diagrom. Ans. in the text book at page 243-245: response to stimulus in an organism is. an organized pattern of many physiological events. This is achieved by the Coordinated function of (a) reoeptor, effector. The simplest response pattern in animals is the reflex arc, which is nothing but the automatic response of an effector (or a group of effectors) to a Stimulus. In a reflex arc, the receptor receives the stimuli and gets excited, which results in the generation of a disturbance in the physiology of nerve that connects the receiptor to the central nervous system. This disturbance is called as nerve impulse. Nerve impulses are passed system through afferent nerves which are sensory in function. The central nervous system is connected to effectors (1) Afferent neuron and through interneurons to efferent (motor) neurons, which relay the impulses to the effector. The effectors are generally the muscles is the body. The response of an animal consists of series of such reflexes occuring in a chain, each gets completed in a fraction of a second. Based on this electrochemical potential it is understood that the inside of the cell is always negative relative to the outside as shown in the Fig. 25. 2. It is the sodium and potassium pump which always keeps the levels of these ions constant by active transport phenomenon always at rest. Therefore, the potential obtained at 27c (See above lines) may be called as resting potential. A diagram is given labelling the following parts: bouton dendron synapso synaphic Vesicle (releasesneurohumors) axon. Ans. by the petitioner conduction of nerve impulse: conduction of nerve impulse is also known as conduction of neuron. Neuron are of 2 types (1) Afferent neuron and (2) Efferent neuron or motor neuron. A diagram is given labelling 3 parts as dendron, synapse and axon one terminal of one neuron will connect itself to dendute of the other. Thereby forming synapse. The valuer has regarded the answer as wrong and has given zero marks. Q. II (3) Classify animals based on the nature of excretory products giving examples? ans. In the text book at page 236. Excretion is the process of elimination of waste products produced as a result of metabolism. Thereby forming synapse. The valuer has regarded the answer as wrong and has given zero marks. Q. II (3) Classify animals based on the nature of excretory products giving examples? ans. In the text book at page 236. Excretion is the process of elimination of waste products produced as a result of metabolism. Metabolism of Carbohydrates and fats yield co2 water and energy, while the metabolism of proteins, in addition to above products yields nitrogenous waste. The separation and elimination of N2- waste is called excretion. Ammonia, Urea and Uric acid are the three chief N2-Waste products. Exces of amino acids undergo deamina- tion and ammonia is released. NH3 is toxic and hence should be eliminated rapidly and efficiently. Ammonia requires plenty of water for its elimination. Hence aquatic animals eliminate ammonia as their chief n2-Waste product Eg. Amoeba, hydra, fish, todpole larva. These animals are called ammollotctic. Terrosptrial animals like frog, and mammals cannot eliminate NH3 due to water scarcity and conservation. Hence they deto- xicate ammonia, to Urea through ornithine cycle, (Fig. 24. 1) taking place in the liver. The liver has the enzyme arginasc. Thus these animals eliminate Urea as their chief n2-Waste products and hence called ureotelic. Truely terrestrial animals like insects, reptiles and birds can eliminate neither ammonia nor urea, due to acute water scarcity and conservation. Hence, these animals eliminate Uric acid, as their chief N2- waste product. Hence they are called uricotelies. Uric acid is less toxic. It does not require water for its elimination. Uric acid is eliminated as precipitated in soluble crystals as it is not soluble in water. Ans. Given by the petitioner. Excretory products are ammonia, urea and uric acid. For the excretion of ammonia water is necessary in large excess. So aquatic animals excrete ammonia. Urea is excreted by frog and other animals belonging to the same category. Uric acid is excreted by Mammals. The valuer has given one marks as against 4 marks earmarked for the question. Re. Botany. Q. II (1) How does a DNA molecule duplicate itself? ans. In the text book at pp 39, 40 and 41. Urea is excreted by frog and other animals belonging to the same category. Uric acid is excreted by Mammals. The valuer has given one marks as against 4 marks earmarked for the question. Re. Botany. Q. II (1) How does a DNA molecule duplicate itself? ans. In the text book at pp 39, 40 and 41. Watson and Crick proposed that DNA is a double helix, with two coiled (helical) structures linked by pairing of complementary bases, i. e. , pairing of A with T and g with C. Only 4 possible type of pairing is possible; A=t, T=a, G = C, C=g (the lines show the number of hydrogen bonds ). The two helices are made of phosphate and sugar bonding. The two polynucleotides are twisted, around each other. The linking of the two helices by base pairing and their twisting is indicated in figure 4. 4. The structure of DNA thus shows two complementary strands on a twin molecule. It is easy to visualise how such a molecule can replicate without losing its identity It is envisaged that the molecule simply unwinds from one end. Each of the separate strands can then act as a template against which a new complementary strand is formed. If the two strands arc designated for convenience as X and Y, when they separate, against each X a complementary new y Strand is formed and against each Y a complementary new X Strand is formed. In other words, when the two holices separate the naked bonds will attract complementary bases eg. , each exposed a Attracts a T and an exposed G will bind to a new C. Thus complementary helix with a base sequence determined by the exposed helix is formed. So we have two molecules resembling the original molecule of DNA. Each new molecule formed will have one parental standard and another new strand. In other words, one strand is conserved (Old) the other one is freshly synthesized. This mode of replication where one of the original strands is preserved is called the semiconservative type of replication. It has been possible to achieved replication of dna from bacteria in the test tube using the proper enzymes called DNA polymerases. Answer given by the petitioner dna molecule after becoming free, attracts the base i. e. , A attracts T, and G attracts c. They then form the helix structure. It has been possible to achieved replication of dna from bacteria in the test tube using the proper enzymes called DNA polymerases. Answer given by the petitioner dna molecule after becoming free, attracts the base i. e. , A attracts T, and G attracts c. They then form the helix structure. When these cross, then one curve or helix will be of parent and another new formed. (A diagram is drawn) this is how new DNA resembling the original one is formed. The valuer has given one mark as against four earmarked for the question. Q. 11 (4) How do you identify different types of blood group in man? the answer is not found in the text book, but an extract from Modi's medical jurisprudence 17th Edn. 1969 was furnished by the learned counsel for the petitioner. It reads: "a drop of serum (a) from Group B person is placed on one end of glass slide and a drop of Serum (b) from Group A person at the other. A drop of red blood cells is added to Serum on each side at each end of the slide and mixed with a glass rod. The slide is gently rocked to and fro for thorough mixing. The irregular clumps of the R. B. C. s will be noticed by the naked eye with or without a handlence or under the low power microxcope. The group can be determined by the following rule. If agglutination occurs with serum (a) alone the blood belongs to group A. If it occurs with only serurn (b) the blood group belongs to B. If agglutination occurs both the sera the blood belongs to AB. If neither of the sera causes agglutination of red corpuscles the blood belongs to group O. Ans. furnished by the petitioner- take a Slab and mark A and B put a drop of blood which is to be tested on both sides. If the blood clotts on B Side then the blood group is A. If the blood clotts on A Side then the group is B. If clotts on both sides then it is O. If it does not clott on anyside then it is AB. The valuer has regarded the answer as wrong and has been zero marks. Q. IV (4) Draw a labelled diagram of t. S. of dicot stem and explain the different parts- ans. The valuer has regarded the answer as wrong and has been zero marks. Q. IV (4) Draw a labelled diagram of t. S. of dicot stem and explain the different parts- ans. in the text book at p. 125 and 126 reads- structure of a young Dicot Stem; a thin transverse section of young stemp of Sunflower plant reveals the following parts:- the Epidermis: It represents the outermost layer. It is composed of a single layer of rectangular cells which are compactly arranged. Stomatta are rarely present. Chloroplasts are generally absent in these cells. Some of the epidermal cells have milticellular hairs. The cortext: The cortext lies just below the epidermis. The cortext shows two regions. 1. an outer cortext which is composed of a few layers of collenchyama cells and 2. an inter cortext which is composed of many layers of parenchyama cells. The Endodermis: The inner most layer of the inner cortext is called the endoder- mis. It is composed of a single layer of barrel-shaped cells. Their radical walls are greatly thickned. The endodermal cells are packed with starch-grains. It is for this reason that endodcrmis is often called a starch-sheath. The Stele: All tissues which lies interior to the endodermis are collectively called the stele. The outer portion of the stele is called the pericycle. Pericycle is composed of many layers of cells where groups of parenchyma and sclerenchyma cells alternate each other. The compact groups of sclerenchyn a cells form the hard basts or bundle-caps. The hard basts occur just above the vasculer bundles. Lying below the pericycle there are a limited number of vascular bundles which are arranged in the form of a broken ring. (A diagram is given at p. 126 labelling the following parts- epidermis. Hypodermis cortext endodermis sclerenchyma phloem cambium metaxylem protoxylem wood parenchyama pith. The Central portion is represented by a pith or medulla. The pith is composed of many layers of parenchyama cells. The rays of parenchyma cells which lie in between the vascular bundles and also connect the cortext with the pith are called medullary rays. Each vascular bundle is oval in outline having an external phloem, an internal xylem and a cambium in between these two. Since phloem and xylem occur in the same plane, the vascular bundle is said to be collateral. Since cambium is present, the vascular bundle is said to be open. Each vascular bundle is oval in outline having an external phloem, an internal xylem and a cambium in between these two. Since phloem and xylem occur in the same plane, the vascular bundle is said to be collateral. Since cambium is present, the vascular bundle is said to be open. In the xylem region, the first-formed protoxylem is facing the pith. Hence the protoxylem is said to be endarch. The xylem consists of xylem vessels, xylem fibres and xylem parenchyma. The pholem consists of sievetubes, companion cells and phloem parenchyma. The cambium is composed of a few layers of meristematic cells. Ans. Given by the petitioner. T. S. Dicot stem. Epidermis: It is the outermost layer having multicellularhairs. The wall of epidermis is cutinised. Cortex: Cortext is divided into two group. (1) outer cortex and (2) Inner cortex. Diagram of Dicor stem (Sun flower) is given with following parts. Root hair epidermis collerchym parenchyama endodermis sylem phloem cambium medulary rays metaxylem protoxylem pith. Outer cortex consists of collenchyma cell next to collenchyma layer there is a layer of parenchyma cell. Inner most to the car- tex is endodermis. In the region of stele there are 2 to 3 vascular bundles. Vascular bundle in dicot stem is defined as collateral, endorch and open. The valuer has given four marks as against eight marks earmarked for the question and has rounded off (Root hair) marked by the petitioner to indicate that it forms no part of stem. ( 17 ) A perusal of the answers furnished by the petitioner and the answers found in the text book, at once indicates that the allegation that the valuer has treated the right answers as wrong is untenable. Nevertheless, the petitioner and her father and their counsel, maintain that the answers given by the petitioner were correct. They also maintain that in respect of other answers for which some marks are given, more should have been given and, therefore, a direction to that effect should be given. The submission is untenable. The valuation made by the valuer and the marks awarded, in my opinion, is not justiciable and it is not open to this court to direct the Board to award marks or more marks than the marks awarded by the valuer to any answers or to direct revaluation of the answer scripts. The submission is untenable. The valuation made by the valuer and the marks awarded, in my opinion, is not justiciable and it is not open to this court to direct the Board to award marks or more marks than the marks awarded by the valuer to any answers or to direct revaluation of the answer scripts. ( 18 ) IN the result, I find no substance in the contention urged for the petitioner on the second question also. For the reasons aforesaid, I make the following order: writ petition is dismissed. No Costs. Sri. N. Devdas, High Court Government pleader is permitted to file memo of appearance within two weeks. --- *** --- .