JUDGMENT : S.K.Gangele, J:- All these appeals have been heard together and have been disposed of by this common order. For the purpose of description of facts, the facts mentioned in W.A. No.233/2012 (Chanchal Modi v. State of M.P. and another) have been taken into consideration. 2. All these connected appeals have been filed by the candidates, who appeared in written examination conducted by the respondent Public Service Commission to the post of Assistant District Prosecution Officer, but could not get selected. 3. The appellants pleaded that they had answered some of the questions correctly, however the Public Service Commission (PSC) prescribed wrong model answers due to which the appellants could not get proper marks and their marks had also been reduced on account of negative marking. 4. The Writ Court dismissed the writ petitions filed by the appellants on the ground that the answers were examined by the experts appointed by the PSC. If there was any defect of answers, it was applicable to all the candidates, hence, no interference is warranted. 5. Learned counsel for the appellants contended that the answers prescribed in the model answer sheet by the PSC in regard to some questions are apparently wrong, in such circumstances, the court has power to interfere. It is further submitted that due to arbitrary answers, the appellants have adversely been affected because they have mentioned correct answers but they have not been given the numbers. The appellants have wrongly been denied selection. In support of their contentions, learned counsel relied on the following judgments :- (i) Dayal Singh v. State of Uttaranchal - (2012) 8 SCC 263 (ii) R. Sarangapani v. Tahsildar - (2011) 14 SCC 177 (iii) Sahebrao Mohan Berad v. State of Maharashtra - (2011) 4 SCC 249 (iv) Kerala SEB v. Hitech Electrothermics & Hydropower Ltd. - (2005) 6 SCC 651 (v) Lily Thomas v. Union of India - (2000) 6 SCC 224 6. Learned senior counsel appearing on behalf of the PSC has contended that the answers prescribed in the model answer sheet were based on the opinion given by the experts. There may be two views possible on a particular answer, however, on this ground the court could not interfere in the matter as held by the Writ Court. It is further submitted that the appellants did not make complaint to the PSC. There may be two views possible on a particular answer, however, on this ground the court could not interfere in the matter as held by the Writ Court. It is further submitted that the appellants did not make complaint to the PSC. PSC itself cancelled some questions and awarded 'zero' (o) marks to the candidates. The appellants did not join selected candidates as party, hence, no relief can be granted in favour of the appellants. In support of his contentions, learned senior counsel relied on the following judgments :- (i) Anjali Saxena v. Chairman, P.E. Board, Bhopal – AIR 1990 MP 253 (ii) ICFAI v. Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (2007) 12 SCC 210 (iii) P.B. Samant v. Union of India - AIR 2009 (NOC) AP 1505 (Bom.) (iv) Babulal Parate v. State of Bombay - AIR 1960 SC 51 (v) Radhey Shyam Khemka v. State of Bihar - (1993) 3 SCC 54 (vii) State of U.P. v. Netra Pal Singh - (2004) 4 SCCC 748 (viii) Ishwar Singh v. Kuldip Singh – 1995 Supp (1) SCC 179 (ix) Sushma Suri v. Govt. of National Capital Territory of Delhi - (1999) 1 SCC 330 . 7. PSC issued an advertisement in regard to selection/recruitment to 193 posts of Assistant District Prosecution Officer (ADPO). A written examination was held and the candidates were required to answer two sets of question papers; 10 ADPO I & 10 ADPO II. A candidate had to answer 150 objective type questions. All questions were compulsory. If a candidate answered correct question, two (2) marks were awarded and if the answer was wrong minus one (-1) mark was awarded. The appellant was called for interview after written examination. The appellant was awarded 483 marks out of 600 in the written examination and 9 marks out of 50 in the interview. Cut off marks was 503 for OBC candidate. 8. The contention of the appellant is that if he would have had awarded correct marks, then he could easily scored more than minimum cut off marks, hence, non-selection of the appellant is arbitrary. In the case of some of the appellants, the difference of marks between cut off marks and the marks received by the appellants is near about 2-4 marks. 9. The controversy involved is in regard to question Nos.13, 20, 67, 99, 116, 127 of first paper and question nos. In the case of some of the appellants, the difference of marks between cut off marks and the marks received by the appellants is near about 2-4 marks. 9. The controversy involved is in regard to question Nos.13, 20, 67, 99, 116, 127 of first paper and question nos. 5 and 28 of second paper. 10. This court heard the appeals and vide order dt.24th January 2013 referred the case for opinion to Hon'ble Justice D.M. Dharmadhikari, retired Judge of Supreme Court. Hon'ble Justice refused to give opinion, then vide another order, the matter was referred to Hon'ble Justice R.S. Garg, retired Chief Justice of this court, for his opinion. Earlier PSC also referred the matter for opinion to a retired Judge of this court. Learned Judge had given following opinion :- 11. Because the opinion was not based on detailed reasons, hence, this court rejected the opinion and referred the matter to Hon'ble Justice R.S.Garg, retired Chief Justice of this court. Hon'ble Justice Garg in his opinion found that the answers given in the model answer sheet by the PSC of certain questions were not correct. 12. Before adverting and analysing the correctness of the answers mentioned in the model answer sheet, we would like to discuss powers of the court in regard to interference in the matter of competitive examinations. 13. A three judge Bench of Hon'ble Supreme Court in Kanpur University v. Samir Gupta reported in AIR 1983 SC 1230 in somewhat similar circumstances considered the power of the court. The court formulated following question, which was involved for answer before the Hon'ble Supreme Court :- “These appeals raise a somewhat awkward question : If a paper-setter commits an error while indicating the correct answer to a question set by him, can the students who answer that question correctly be failed for the reason that though their answer is correct, it does not accord with the answer supplied by the paper-setter to the University as the correct answer ?” 14. In the aforesaid case, Hon'ble Supreme Court has held as under :- “15. The findings of the High Court raise a question of great importance to the student community. In the aforesaid case, Hon'ble Supreme Court has held as under :- “15. The findings of the High Court raise a question of great importance to the student community. Normally, one would be inclined to the view, especially if one has been a paper setter and an examiner, that the key answer furnished by the paper setter and accepted by the University as correct, should not be allowed to be challenged. One way of achieving it is not to publish the key answer at all. If the University had not published the key answer along with the result of the test, no controversy would have arisen in this case. But that is not a correct way of looking at these matters which involve the future of hundreds of students who are aspirants for admission to professional courses. If the key answer were kept secret in this case, the remedy would have been worse than the disease because, so many students would have had to suffer the injustice in silence. The publication of the key answer has unravelled an unhappy state of affairs to which the University and the State Government must find a solution. Their sense of fairness in publishing the key answer has given them an opportunity to have a closer look at the system of examinations which they conduct. What has failed is not the computer but the human system. 16. Shri Kacker, who appears on behalf of the University, contended that no challenge should be allowed to be made to the correctness of a key answer unless, on the face of it, it is wrong. We agree that the key answer should be assumed to be correct unless it is proved to be wrong and that it should not be held to be wrong and that it should not be held to be wrong by an inferential process of reasoning or by a process of rationalisation. It must be clearly demonstrated to be wrong, that is to say, it must be such as no reasonable of men well versed in the particular subject would regard as correct. The contention of the University is falsified in this case by a large number of acknowledged text-books, which are commonly read by students in U.P. Those textbooks leave no room for doubt that the answer given by the students is correct and the key answer is incorrect.” 15. The contention of the University is falsified in this case by a large number of acknowledged text-books, which are commonly read by students in U.P. Those textbooks leave no room for doubt that the answer given by the students is correct and the key answer is incorrect.” 15. From the findings of the Hon’ble Supreme Court it is clear that the court has power to interfere in the matter of examination of correct answer in multiple choice objective type test if the answer supplied in key answer sheet is wrong up to the extent that no reasonable body of men well versed in the particular subject would regard the answer as correct. 16. Hon’ble Supreme Court in Himchal Pradesh Public Service Commission v. Mukesh Thakur reported in (2010) 6 SCC 759 has also considered the power of the court to examine the question papers and answer sheets itself. In this case, Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission advertised 13 vacancies of Civil Judges (Junior Division). One of the candidate was not selected in viva voce/interview. He filed a writ petition for revaluation of paper of Civil Law II. The High Court examined the answer sheet and opined that there was some inconsistency in framing the questions No.5 and 8 and in evaluation of answer to the aforesaid questions and issued directions. Hon’ble Supreme Court set aside the directions issued by the court and held as under :- “20. In view of the above, it was not permissible for the High Court to examine the question papers and answer sheets itself, particularly, when the Commission had assessed the inter se merit of the candidates. If there was a discrepancy in framing the question or evaluation of the answer, it could be for all the candidates appearing for the examination and not for Respondent 1 only. It is a matter of chance that the High Court was examining the answer sheets relating to Law. Had it been other subjects like Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics, we were unable to understand as to whether such a course could have been adopted by the High Court. Therefore, we are of the considered opinion that such a course was not permissible to the High Court.” 17. These two judgments are some what direct on the point in regard to the power of the court to interfere in correctness of the answers provided by the expert body. Therefore, we are of the considered opinion that such a course was not permissible to the High Court.” 17. These two judgments are some what direct on the point in regard to the power of the court to interfere in correctness of the answers provided by the expert body. In earlier case, quoted above, which is a decision of three judge bench, the court has specifically answered that if the answers provided by the examiner or expert body are incorrect to the extent that no reasonable body of men well versed in the particular subject would regard as correct, then the court can interfere. In our opinion, the principle of law laid down by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Kanpur University (supra) is correct and has to be followed in the present case. 18. Large number of candidates used to appear in the competitive examinations. It is the duty of the expert body – PSC or any other body to provide correct answers of the questions put forward before the candidates for answers. If it be left to the expert body that the answers provided by the expert body could not be interfered with, then an arbitrariness would prevail in the competitive examination. Suppose the question is what is the national capital of India and the answer provided by the expert body is “Mumbai”, whether the court can interfere or not. In our opinion, the answer is palpably wrong, hence, the court has power to interfere because a candidate could not be punished on the arbitrary exercise of powers by the expert body. The future of the candidates, who are facing selection would be jeopardized if free hand be given to the expert bodies in the matter of providing key answers of the question even on face it is wrong. 19. It is further well settled principle of law that an opinion of the expert is not beyond the peril of judicial review and it would certainly not be so when the statutory authority transgresses its jurisdiction. It is held by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ICFAI v. Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India reported in (2007) 12 SCC 210 and in the case of Vasu Dev Singh v. Union of India reported in 2006 (12) SCC 753. 20. It is held by the Hon’ble Supreme Court in the case of ICFAI v. Council of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India reported in (2007) 12 SCC 210 and in the case of Vasu Dev Singh v. Union of India reported in 2006 (12) SCC 753. 20. In this case we have referred the matter to the retired Chief Justice of this court Hon’ble Shri Justice R.S. Garg for his opinion, because prima facie we found that some of the answers mentioned as correct answers by the PSC were wrong and the expert in his opinion stated that answers of some of the questions provided by the PSC correct. We would like to examine the questions independently considering the opinion of the expert. 21. In regard to question No.13 of the 1st Paper, the PSC itself cancelled the answer and awarded one mark to each candidate, hence, it is not necessary to consider the aforesaid question. 22. Question No.20 of the 1st Paper is as under :- Question 20 – An amendment of the Constitution of India for the purpose of creating a new state in India, must be passed by: (A) a simple majority in Parliament. (B) two-thirds of the members of both the Houses of Parliament present and voting. (C) a simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the States. (D) a simple majority in the Parliament with the approval of the concerned state. 23. The PSC prescribed the correct answer of this question as “D” in the key answer sheet. As per the petitioners, they answered the correct answer as “A”. The expert in his opinion has held that the correct answer is “A” and recorded following reasonings in support of the aforesaid conclusion :- “3. 23. The PSC prescribed the correct answer of this question as “D” in the key answer sheet. As per the petitioners, they answered the correct answer as “A”. The expert in his opinion has held that the correct answer is “A” and recorded following reasonings in support of the aforesaid conclusion :- “3. Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States.- Parliament may by law- (a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; (b) increase the area of any States; (c) diminish the area of any State; (d) alter the boundary of any State; (e) alter the name of any State; [Provided that no Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in either House of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President and unless, where the proposal contained in the Bill affects the area, boundaries or name of any of the States, the Bill has been referred by the President to the Legislature of that State for expressing its views thereon within such period as may be specified in the reference or within such further period as the President may allow and the period so specified or allowed has expired]. Explanation I.- In this article, in clauses (a) to (e), “State” includes a Union territory, but in the proviso, “State” does not include a Union territory. Explanation II.-The power conferred on Parliament by clause (a) includes the power to form a new State or Union territory by uniting a part of any State or Union territory to any other State or Union territory. A perusal of Article 3 of the Constitution of India referred to above, would provide answer to the question and the answer would be that an amendment of the Constitution of India for the purpose of creating new State in India must be passed by a simple majority in Parliament. Answer- D which provides that an amendment should be by simple majority in the Parliament with approval of the concerned State, would be a wrong answer because law does not require approval of the concerned State. The Constitution mandate requires comments from such State, therefore, answer- A would be correct.” 24. Answer- D which provides that an amendment should be by simple majority in the Parliament with approval of the concerned State, would be a wrong answer because law does not require approval of the concerned State. The Constitution mandate requires comments from such State, therefore, answer- A would be correct.” 24. The Constitution Bench of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Babulal Parate v. State of Bombay reported in AIR 1960 SC 51 has also considered the necessity to receive accent or permission of the State in the event of carving out new State or amendment of boundaries in a State and held as under :- “The proviso to Art. 3 lays down two conditions; one is that no Bill shall be introduced except on the recommendation of the President, and the second condition is that where the proposal contained in the bill affects the area, boundaries or name of any of the States, the Bill has to be referred by the President to the Legislature of the State for expressing its views thereon. The period within which the State Legislature must express its views has to be specified by the President; but the President may extend the period so specified. If, however, the period specified or extended expires and no views of the State Legislature are received, the second condition laid down in the proviso is fulfilled in spite of the fact that the views of the State Legislature have not been expressed.” 25. From the aforesaid constitution bench judgment of the Hon'ble Supreme Court, it is clear that only reference to the State is necessary and it is not necessary that there must be approval of the concerned State. The Article further provides that the amendment can be passed by a simple majority in Parliament, hence, the answer “A” is the correct answer and the answer “D” by the PSC is wrong. It also satisfies the criteria fixed by the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Kanpur University (supra) that no person having knowledge of subject would answer the same as answered by the expert body. 26. The next question is question No.67 of the 1st paper. It is as under :- Question 67- A contract without consideration is void - there are exceptions. Which one of the following exception is correct ? (A) Natural love and affection. (B) Promise to pay time-barred debt. (c) To create an agency. 26. The next question is question No.67 of the 1st paper. It is as under :- Question 67- A contract without consideration is void - there are exceptions. Which one of the following exception is correct ? (A) Natural love and affection. (B) Promise to pay time-barred debt. (c) To create an agency. (D) Both (A) and (B). 27. Key answer of the PSC is “C”, however, in accordance with the opinion of the expert, the correct answer is “D”. The expert has given following reasonings in support of his opinion :- Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 provides that agreement without consideration would be void unless it is in writing and registered or a promise to compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a debt barred by limitation law. Sub-Section (1) of Sec. 25 provides that the contract would not be void if it is expressed in writing and registered under the law for the time being in force for the registration of documents, 11 W.A.No.233/2012 and is made on account of natural love and affection between the parties standing in a near relation to each other. Similarly, the contract would not be void if it is a promise made in writing and signed by the person to be charged therewith, or by his agent generally or specially authorised in that behalf, to pay wholly or in part a debt of which the creditor might have enforced payment but for the law for the limitation of suits. In the light of the above referred discussion, the correct answer to question 67 would be answer – D which says that answer (A) and (B) would be correct.” 28. Section 25 of the Contract Act prescribes that agreement without consideration, void, however, it would be valid under certain circumstances. Relevant provisions of the aforesaid Section are as under :- “25. Agreement without consideration, void, unless it is in writing and registered or is a promise to compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a dept barred by limitation law. Relevant provisions of the aforesaid Section are as under :- “25. Agreement without consideration, void, unless it is in writing and registered or is a promise to compensate for something done or is a promise to pay a dept barred by limitation law. -An agreement made without consideration is void, unless- (1) it is expressed in writing and registered under the law for the time begin force for the registration of documents, and is made on account of natural love and affection between parties standing in a near relation to each other; or unless (2) it is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has already voluntarily done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do; or unless.” 29. The condition “A” on account of natural love and affection is applicable when the contract is made between the parties standing in near relation to each other. In the answer “A”, it has not been mentioned, only natural love and affection has been mentioned. Hence, the answer “A” could not be said to be correct. Answer “B” is Promise to pay time barred debt. This is also subject to certain condition that but for the law for the limitation of suits. That condition has not been mentioned in “B” answer. An agency be created by a written contract without consideration. Hence, in our opinion, the answer prescribed by the PSC appears to be correct. 30. The next question is question No.76 of the 1st paper. It is as under :- Question No. 76 When goods are displayed in a shop window with price tag attached to them the offer comes from the: (A) offerer (B) general public (c) customer (D) shop owner 31. As per the expert opinion, the correct answer is “C” and the answer prescribed by the PSC is “D”. The expert has given the following reasoning in regard to correct answer :- In my opinion, whenever goods are simply displayed in the window of a shop along with price tag, whoever as customer wants to buy it has to necessarily make up his/ her mind to buy the same at the price displayed and then propose to the shop keeper to buy the same and it would be the choice of the shopkeeper to sell or not to sell. By exhibiting the price, the shopkeeper in fact, is inviting offers. In this transaction the offer comes from the customer to the shopkeeper and therefore, the correct answer is-C. 32. Section 2 (a) of the Contract Act prescribes offer or proposal. It is as under :- “(a) When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal.” 33. Hon'ble Supreme Court in Dresser Rand S.A. v. M/s Bindal Agro Chem Ltd. reported in AIR 2006 SC 87 has held that a tender document or invitation of bid is not offer, only it is an invitation and when a bid or offer was made by perspective supplier, that would be called an offer. 34. In Badri Prasad v. State of M.P. reported in AIR 1970 SC 706 , Divisional Forest Officer wrote a letter to the plaintiff in regard to contract of big trees of Sunderpani Village of Makrai Circle and offered to give a contract on the condition of compromise on payment of certain amount and requested to submit willingness to execute the contract. In the aforesaid case, Hon'ble Supreme Court has held that the letter was not an offer. It was simply an invitation to the plaintiff to make an offer. The finding of the Hon'ble Supreme Court is as under :- “This brings us to the last point, namely, whether a new contract was concluded between the Government and the plaintiff. It is extremely doubtful whether the letter dated February 1, 1955, is an offer. It seems to be an invitation to the plaintiff to make offer.” 35. The same principle has been clearly mentioned in the commentary of AIR of contract act, where the gist of the decision has been mentioned as under :- “A catalogue of the goods of a Company for sale is not a series of offers but only an invitation for offers. A person ordering a certain article is the offers and the Company is the acceptor.” 36. It is held that a person ordering a certain article is the offer. A person ordering a certain article is the offers and the Company is the acceptor.” 36. It is held that a person ordering a certain article is the offer. In the present case, act of the shop owner is an invitation and the customer, who accepts the invitation, offers his consent and it could be held that the offer comes from the customer in view of Section 2 (a) of the Contract Act. Hence, the opinion of the expert is correct and the principle of the Hon'ble Supreme Court is applicable in the same case. The answer provided by the PSC is not correct. 37. Now the next question is question No.99 of the 1st paper. It is as under :- Question 99- In which one of the following torts, the liability is not based on “fault” ? (A) Conversion. (B) Negligence (C) Trespass. (D) Malicious prosecution. 38. As per the PSC, the correct answer is “A”. The expert has given the correct answer as “B” and the following reasons have been assigned for the answer :- Whenever a tortious liability arises not founded on fault theory, it necessarily involves negligence on the part of one causing damage to another. In cases of Conversion, Trespass and Malicious prosecution, there is some act on the part of the wrong doer and that wrong in fact, is a fault on the part of the wrong doer. In case of negligence the act is done recklessly and it causes damage to another. In such circumstances, the tortious liability arises by such negligent act. The correct answer to the question would be answer-B 39. In our opinion, the reasonings assigned by the expert are correct. 40. In regard to question No.116, both - the expert and PSC have admitted that the correct answer is “A”. Hence, it is not necessary to consider the aforesaid question. 41. Now the next question is question No. 127. It is as under :- Question 127 – A person may sue a foreign State : (A) with consent of the State Government. (B) only with the consent of Central Government. (C) with the consent of the President of India. (D) with the consent of the Central as well as State Government. 42. The correct answer prescribed by the PSC is “D”, however, as per the expert opinion, the correct answer is “B”. (B) only with the consent of Central Government. (C) with the consent of the President of India. (D) with the consent of the Central as well as State Government. 42. The correct answer prescribed by the PSC is “D”, however, as per the expert opinion, the correct answer is “B”. The expert has given following reasonings in regard to correct answer :- Sec. 86 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is the answer to the question. Sub-Section (1) of Sec. 86 clearly provides that no foreign State may be sued in any Court otherwise competent to try the suit except with the consent of the Central Government, certified in writing by a Secretary to the Government. Under these circumstances, the correct answer is – B which provides that a person may sue a foreign State only with the consent of the Central Government. 43. Section 86 (1) of the CPC prescribes necessity of consent to sue the foreign State. It is as under :- 86. Suits against foreign Rulers, Ambassadors and Envoys. -(1) No foreign State may be sued in any Court otherwise competent to try the suit except with the consent of the Central Government certified in writing by a Secretary to that Government. Provided that a person may, as a tenant of immovable property, sue without such consent as aforesaid [a foreign State] from whom he holds or claims to hold the property. 44. This clearly postulates that a foreign State could not be sued without consent of the Central Government. The State Government consent is not necessary. Hence, the answer prescribed by the PSC is expressly wrong and arbitrary. 45. In regard to question No.5 of Second paper, the answer given by the PSC is 'B' and the expert opinion is “C”. The Food Adulteration Act provides that the mens rea would be irrelevant for the prosecution. Hence, in our opinion, the answer given by the PSC is correct and could not be faulted. May be (C) - Bigamy is the correct answer, but (B) - Food Adulteration is also correct answer. 46. Next question is question No.28 of the second paper. It is as under :- Question 28 – A, an 11 year aged boy, entered in the room of a gird B, aged about 8 years who was sleeping. A injured her private parts. In this case : (A) A has committed no offence. 46. Next question is question No.28 of the second paper. It is as under :- Question 28 – A, an 11 year aged boy, entered in the room of a gird B, aged about 8 years who was sleeping. A injured her private parts. In this case : (A) A has committed no offence. (B) A is guilty of an offence under Section 354 of IPC (C) A is guilty of rape. (D) A is guilty of attempt to rape. 47. In accordance with the PSC, the correct answer is “A”, however, as per the expert opinion, the correct answer is “B” and the expert has given following reasonings for the aforesaid answer :- “Section 83 of the Indian Penal Code provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child above 7 years of age and under 12, who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge of the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion. Where the accused is a child above 7 years of age and under 12, the incapacity to commit an offence only arises when the child has not attained sufficient maturity or understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct, and such non-attainment would have to be specifically pleaded and proved, like the incapacity of a person who, at the time of doing an act charged as an offence, was alleged to have been of unsound mind. Under this Section it has to be shown that the accused is not only between 7 to 12 years of age but has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding. If such evidence or defence or circumstances are not brought to the notice of the Court, it will be presumed that the child accused intended to do what he really did. What this Section contemplates is that the child should not know the nature and physical consequences of his conduct. Section 83 provides a defence to a child who is between 7 years of age and is under 12. In the present case, such a child can be prosecuted for an offence punishable u/S. 354 of IPC, but he would be free to prove his defence as provided under the Exception provided u/S. 83 of the IPC. The correct answer would be -B. 48. In the present case, such a child can be prosecuted for an offence punishable u/S. 354 of IPC, but he would be free to prove his defence as provided under the Exception provided u/S. 83 of the IPC. The correct answer would be -B. 48. Section 83 of the IPC reads as under in regard to the act of child above 7 years and under 12 years of age :- “Section 83. Nothing is an offence which is done by a child above seven years of age and under twelve, who has not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge of the nature and consequences of his conduct on that occasion.” 49. From the perusal of the aforesaid Section, it is clear that the section gives immunity to a child between the age of 7 years to 12 years from prosecution, if he proves before the court that he had not attained sufficient maturity of understanding to judge the nature and consequences of his conduct. Section does not give out right immunity to the child from prosecution between the age of 7 to 11 years. 50. In two cases i.e. Emperor v. Paras Ram Dube reported in AIR 1915 All 134 and in Emperor v. Niga Tun Kaing reported in AIR 1918 Low Burma 96 (1), children under 14 years and 12 years have been found guilty of attempt to commit rape. Hence, the answer provided by the PSC is not correct. The answer provided by the expert is correct. 51. On the basis of the above analysis, in our opinion, the answers given by the PSC as correct in key answer in regard to certain questions i.e. question Nos. 20, 76, 99 and 127 of 1st paper and question No.28 of 2nd paper are not correct and the court has power to interfere in the matter as per the principle laid down above in the order on the basis of the three judge bench decision of the Hon'ble Supreme Court in Kanpur University (supra). 52. Before considering the relief which could be granted in favour of the appellants, we would like to consider the objections of the PSC in regard to non joinder of selected persons as parties. 53. 52. Before considering the relief which could be granted in favour of the appellants, we would like to consider the objections of the PSC in regard to non joinder of selected persons as parties. 53. At the time of passing of the order, writ court specifically observed that any appointment shall be made by the PSC shall be subject to the decision, that may be passed by the court in the case. The court passed following interim order on 8.2.2012 in W.P.No.7403/2011 and other connected petitions :- “In such a circumstance, by way of interim measure, it is directed that selection and appointment, if any, is made by the Public Service Commission and the State Government it shall be subject to final outcome of the petition.” 54. It is well settled principle of law that some of the selected candidates have to be made party in the petition if the petitioner or the petitioners wants/want to set aside the selection but in the present case, appointment of the candidates, who were appointed against the posts, was the conditional appointment. The court specifically observed in the order as quoted above that the selection and appointment, if any, shall be made by the PSC and State, that shall be subject to final out come of the petition, hence, the petition is maintainable even though the appellants have not added the selected persons as party. 55. Now the question is that what relief be granted to the appellants. 56. The persons have already been appointed and those persons have not been made party in the petition before the writ court or in the writ appeal before this court. Hence, the persons, who have been selected, their selection could not be set aside, however, if the posts are still vacant and the appellants would receive higher marks in comparasion to the cut of marks, then the State is at liberty to appoint the present appellants and if it is not possible for the State to appoint the appellants, who secured higher marks after, scrutiny in accordance with the correct answers prescribed in this judgment, then, in our opinion, the appellants are eligible to get a fair compensation. Under certain circumstances, the court has power to award compensation if a legal right or fundamental right of the person is infringed. 57. Hon'ble Supreme Court in Raghuvansh Dewanchand Bhasin Vs. Under certain circumstances, the court has power to award compensation if a legal right or fundamental right of the person is infringed. 57. Hon'ble Supreme Court in Raghuvansh Dewanchand Bhasin Vs. State of Maharashtra reported in (2012) 9 SCC 791 , has held that the High Court has power to grant monitory compensation in exercise of its jurisdiction under Article 226 of the Constitution of India in favour of the person whose fundamental rights under Article 21 of the Constitution are violated. In the aforesaid judgment, Hon'ble Supreme Court has considered the observations of earlier judgment passed in Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar reported in (1983) 4 SCC 141 , where the Hon'ble Supreme Court has held as under :- “17. It follows that 'a claim in public law for compensation' for contravention of human rights and fundamental freedoms, the protection of which is guaranteed in the Constitution, is an acknowledged remedy for enforcement and protection of such rights, and such a claim based on strict liability made by resorting to a constitutional remedy provided for the enforcement of a fundamental right is 'distinct from, and in addition to, the remedy in private law for damages for the tort' resulting from the contravention of the fundamental right. The defence of sovereign immunity being inapplicable, and alien to the concept of guarantee of fundamental rights, there can be no question of such a defence being available in the constitutional remedy. It is this principle which justifies award of monetary compensation for contravention of fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution, when that is the only practicable mode of redress available for the contravention made by the State or its servants in the purported exercise of their powers, and enforcement of the fundamental right is claimed by resort to the remedy in public law under the Constitution by recourse to Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution. This is what was indicated in Rudul Sah and is the basis of the subsequent decisions in which compensation was awarded under Articles 32 and 226 of the Constitution, for contravention of fundamental rights.” 58. In the present case, if after scrutiny, it would be found that the appellant or appellants is/are eligible to get employment and if they be not offered the employment, then their legal rights would be affected and it will affect their career. In the present case, if after scrutiny, it would be found that the appellant or appellants is/are eligible to get employment and if they be not offered the employment, then their legal rights would be affected and it will affect their career. Hence, in our opinion, it would be just and proper in that case that the candidate be awarded a compensation of Rs. Five Lakh. 59. Hence, all the appeals are allowed with the following directions :- (i) The impugned judgment dt. 22.3.2012 passed by the writ court in all the connected writ petitions is hereby set aside. (ii) That the respondent Public Service Commission is directed to scrutinize the case of each of the appellant and the answers given by him in the light of the correct answers of the questions mentioned in the judgment and if on revaluation and scrutiny, it be found that the appellant/appellants has/have received higher marks than the cut off marks or equal marks the cut off marks fixed by the PSC in the event of equal marks, they be offered employment or if it is not possible for the State to offer the employment, the successful appellant be paid a compensation of Rs. Five Lakh. (iii) The directions be complied with within 45 days from the date of receipt of copy of the judgment. (iv) No order as to costs.